ITIL 4 Foundation Practice Exam (Mobile Mode)

Q1. Which guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes, and tools when improving services? (A) Focus on value (B) Start where you are (C) Keep it simple and practical (D) Progress iteratively with feedback

Answer: B - "Start where you are" advises considering what is already available to be leveraged before building something new.

Q2. What is the definition of a "Service"? (A) A result for a stakeholder (B) Enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes (C) Joint activities to ensure value (D) Possible events that could cause harm

Answer: B - A service enables value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve without managing specific costs and risks.

Q3. Which practice provides a single point of contact for users? (A) Incident management (B) Change control (C) Service desk (D) Problem management

Answer: C - The Service Desk practice provides a single point of contact for users to report issues and make requests.

Q4. What is the purpose of the "relationship management" practice? (A) Establishing and nurturing links between organization and stakeholders (B) Managing the lifecycle of all services (C) Ensuring services are available (D) Aligning practices and services with business needs

Answer: A - Relationship management establishes and nurtures links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels.

Q5. Which term describes functionality offered by a service to meet a particular need? (A) Warranty (B) Cost (C) Utility (D) Risk

Answer: C - Utility is the functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need ("fit for purpose").

Q6. Which value chain activity ensures that products and services meet agreed expectations for quality, cost, and time to market? (A) Plan (B) Improve (C) Design and transition (D) Deliver and support

Answer: C - "Design and transition" ensures that products and services meet stakeholder expectations for quality, cost, and time to market.

Q7. What is an output? (A) A tangible or intangible deliverable (B) A result for a stakeholder (C) A possible event that causes harm (D) The amount of money spent

Answer: A - An output is a tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity (e.g., a report), whereas an outcome is the result.

Q8. Which concept describes the assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements? (A) Utility (B) Warranty (C) Value (D) Outcome

Answer: B - Warranty is the assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements ("fit for use").

Q9. Which dimension includes the skills and competencies of teams? (A) Information and technology (B) Partners and suppliers (C) Organizations and people (D) Value streams and processes

Answer: C - "Organizations and people" includes roles, responsibilities, systems of authority, and the skills/competencies of people.

Q10. What usually requires a separate process for managing unexpected issues that require immediate action? (A) Standard changes (B) Normal changes (C) Emergency changes (D) Routine changes

Answer: C - Emergency changes must be implemented as soon as possible, often requiring a separate, accelerated process.

Q11. Which practice is responsible for moving new or changed components to live environments? (A) Release management (B) Deployment management (C) Change control (D) Service request management

Answer: B - Deployment management moves new or changed hardware, software, documentation, processes, or other components to live environments.

Q12. What is the main purpose of "problem management"? (A) To restore normal service operation quickly (B) To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents (C) To handle user requests (D) To ensure changes are authorized

Answer: B - Problem management reduces the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents.

Q13. Which guiding principle suggests you should eliminate anything that is truly wasteful? (A) Focus on value (B) Think and work holistically (C) Keep it simple and practical (D) Optimize and automate

Answer: C - "Keep it simple and practical" implies using the minimum number of steps and eliminating wasteful activities.

Q14. How does a service consumer contribute to value reduction? (A) By paying for the service (B) By providing feedback and defining requirements (C) By delivering the service (D) By managing the hardware

Answer: B - Consumers contribute to value through requirements definition, feedback, and their own utilization of the service.

Q15. Which activity is part of the "Service Value System"? (A) Governance (B) Incident Management only (C) The IT department (D) Warranty

Answer: A - The Service Value System (SVS) includes Governance, Guiding Principles, Service Value Chain, Practices, and Continual Improvement.

Q16. Which practice ensures that accurate information about service configuration items is available? (A) Service configuration management (B) Change control (C) IT asset management (D) Release management

Answer: A - Service configuration management ensures that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services and CIs is available when needed.

Q17. What distinguishes a "known error"? (A) It has no known cause (B) It is a problem that has been analyzed but not verified (C) It is a problem where the root cause and workaround are known (D) It is a major incident

Answer: C - A known error is a problem that has been analyzed and has not been resolved, but its root cause and workaround are known.

Q18. Which entity authorizes "normal changes"? (A) The Change Authority (B) The Service Desk (C) The User (D) The Vendor

Answer: A - Normal changes are authorized by a designated Change Authority, which could be a person or a group depending on the risk.

Q19. Which dimension manages the workflows and controls needed to deliver services? (A) Information and technology (B) Value streams and processes (C) Partners and suppliers (D) Organizations and people

Answer: B - "Value streams and processes" defines the activities, workflows, controls, and procedures needed to achieve agreed objectives.

Q20. What is a "workaround"? (A) A permanent fix (B) A temporary solution that reduces or eliminates impact (C) A theoretical solution (D) A type of change request

Answer: B - A workaround is a solution that reduces or eliminates the impact of an incident or problem for which a full resolution is not yet available.

Q21. Which guiding principle emphasizes transparency and sharing information? (A) Collaborate and promote visibility (B) Think and work holistically (C) Focus on value (D) Start where you are

Answer: A - "Collaborate and promote visibility" emphasizes removing silos and sharing information transparently.

Q22. Which service value chain activity involves the purchase of new components? (A) Plan (B) Engage (C) Obtain/build (D) Design and transition

Answer: C - "Obtain/build" ensures that service components are available when and where they are needed, including purchasing them.

Q23. Which term refers to the perceived benefits, usefulness, and importance of something? (A) Cost (B) Value (C) Outcome (D) Output

Answer: B - Value is the perceived benefits, usefulness, and importance of something.

Q24. Which practice deals with minimizing the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible? (A) Problem management (B) Incident management (C) Change control (D) Service level management

Answer: B - Incident management's purpose is to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible.

Q25. What is "Continual Improvement"? (A) A one-time project (B) A practice to align services with changing business needs (C) A specific IT team (D) A warranty clause

Answer: B - Continual Improvement aligns the organization’s practices and services with changing business needs through ongoing improvement of products, services, and practices.

Q26. Which guiding principle recommends using technology to reduce manual work? (A) Optimize and automate (B) Focus on value (C) Collaborate and promote visibility (D) Start where you are

Answer: A - "Optimize and automate" suggests that effective automation should be used to eliminate human intervention where possible.

Q27. How should "standard changes" be handled? (A) They require a full CAB meeting (B) They are pre-authorized (C) They are treated as emergency changes (D) They do not need recording

Answer: B - Standard changes are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that are well-understood and fully documented.

Q28. Which practice manages the full lifecycle of all IT assets? (A) Service configuration management (B) IT asset management (C) Change control (D) Monitoring and event management

Answer: B - IT asset management (ITAM) plans and manages the full lifecycle of all IT assets.

Q29. Which value chain activity includes performance reporting? (A) Plan (B) Engage (C) Improve (D) Design and transition

Answer: C - While reporting happens in many places, 'Improve' heavily relies on performance reporting to identify opportunities. 'Plan' also uses reports for strategy. However, usually "Engage" provides good understanding of needs and transparency (reports to stakeholders). *Correction*: "Improve" is the best fit for analyzing performance to drive change.

Q30. What is a "Service Request"? (A) A failure of a service (B) A formal request for something other than an incident resolution (C) A major change (D) A strategic plan

Answer: B - A service request is a request from a user or owner for information, advice, a standard change, or access to an IT service (not incident repair).

Q31. Which dimension involves the contracts and relationships with external providers? (A) Organizations and people (B) Partners and suppliers (C) Information and technology (D) Valuestreams and processes

Answer: B - "Partners and suppliers" encompasses the contracts, relationships, and agreements with external vendors.

Q32. In the SVS, what provides recommendations that can guide an organization in all circumstances? (A) Governance (B) Practices (C) Guiding Principles (D) Continual Improvement

Answer: C - The Guiding Principles are recommendations that can guide an organization in all circumstances, regardless of changes in goals or structure.

Q33. Which is NOT a step in the "Continual Improvement Model"? (A) Where do we want to be? (B) How do we get there? (C) Who is to blame? (D) Did we get there?

Answer: C - "Who is to blame?" is not part of the model. The model focuses on vision, current state, target state, planning, execution, and validation.

Q34. Which practice includes the classification and ownership of queries and requests from users? (A) Service desk (B) Problem management (C) Change control (D) Incident management

Answer: A - The Service Desk is the entry point and owner of logged queries and requests from users.

Q35. Which term describes the amount of money spent on a specific activity or resource? (A) Value (B) Cost (C) Risk (D) Utility

Answer: B - Cost is the amount of money spent on a specific activity or resource.

Q36. What is a "Sponsor"? (A) A person who authorizes budget for service consumption (B) A person who uses the service (C) A person who defines the requirements (D) A supplier

Answer: A - A Sponsor is the person who authorizes the budget for service consumption.

Q37. Which practice observes services and records changes in state? (A) Monitoring and event management (B) Incident management (C) Problem management (D) Change control

Answer: A - Monitoring and event management systematically observes services and service components, and records and reports selected changes of state.

Q38. "Focus on value" implies you should mainly care about: (A) The service provider's revenue (B) The service consumer's perspective of value (C) The complexity of the system (D) The newest technology

Answer: B - Value is defined by the service consumer, so you must know who they are and how they use the service.

Q39. Which value chain activity ensures users understand the service vision? (A) Plan (B) Engage (C) Obtain/build (D) Design and transition

Answer: A - "Plan" includes creating a shared understanding of the vision, current status, and improvement direction for all four dimensions.

Q40. What is the key to the "Think and work holistically" principle? (A) Focusing on individual details (B) Understanding how all parts of an organization work together (C) Automating everything (D) Reducing costs at all costs

Answer: B - It requires understanding how all the parts of an organization work together in an integrated way (end-to-end visibility).

Q41. Which practice identifies and manages the lifecycle of all IT assets? (A) Service configuration management (B) IT asset management (C) Change control (D) Release management

Answer: B - IT Asset Management (ITAM) plans and manages the full lifecyle of all IT assets to maximize value and control costs.

Q42. How does the "Focus on value" principle describe value? (A) As financial revenue only (B) As something determined by the service consumer (C) As a fixed property of the service (D) As the cost of production

Answer: B - Value is defined by the service consumer. The provider must know who the consumer is and what they value.

Q43. What is "Change Control"? (A) Controlling user behavior (B) Ensuring changes are recorded and evaluated (C) Monitoring the network (D) Controlling software versions

Answer: B - The purpose of change control is to maximize the number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed and authorized.

Q44. Which practice involves swarming? (A) Incident management (B) Change control (C) Service configuration management (D) Supplier management

Answer: A - "Swarming" is a technique often used in incident management where multiple stakeholders work together to solve an issue quickly.

Q45. Which dimension includes culture and management styles? (A) Organizations and people (B) Partners and suppliers (C) Information and technology (D) Value streams and processes

Answer: A - "Organizations and people" covers culture, leadership, skills, and management styles, not just job titles.

Q46. What is a "Service Level Agreement" (SLA)? (A) A contract with a supplier (B) A documented agreement between a service provider and a customer (C) A target for internal teams (D) A report on service performance

Answer: B - An SLA is a documented agreement between a service provider and a customer that identifies services and service level targets.

Q47. Which SVC activity includes the definition of requirements? (A) Plan (B) Engage (C) Design and transition (D) Deliver and support

Answer: B - "Engage" provides a good understanding of stakeholder needs, transparency, and continual engagement (requirements gathering).

Q48. Which term describes a possible event that could cause harm or loss? (A) Issue (B) Problem (C) Risk (D) Incident

Answer: C - Risk is a possible event that could cause harm or loss, or make it more difficult to achieve objectives.

Q49. Which practice includes the management of security incidents? (A) Information security management (B) Incident management (C) Problem management (D) Change control

Answer: A - Information security management protects the information needed by the organization to conduct its business, including managing security incidents.

Q50. Which principle advises against trying to do everything at once? (A) Keep it simple and practical (B) Progress iteratively with feedback (C) Focus on value (D) Connect and collaborate

Answer: B - "Progress iteratively with feedback" advises breaking huge initiatives into smaller, manageable chunks.

Q51. What is the role of an "Incident Manager"? (A) To fix the broken code (B) To coordinate the incident resolution process (C) To approve changes (D) To write the SLA

Answer: B - The Incident Manager manages the process and coordinates resources, though they may not perform the technical fix themselves.

Q52. Which is NOT a dimension of Service Management? (A) Political and Economic (B) Information and Technology (C) Partners and Suppliers (D) Organizations and People

Answer: A - "Political and Economic" factors are part of the external PESTLE analysis, not the 4 internal Dimensions of Service Management.

Q53. What is the goal of "Relationship Management"? (A) To handle complaints only (B) To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction and value co-creation (C) To force customers to use the service (D) To maximize profit margin

Answer: B - Its goal is to establish and nurture links between the organization and stakeholders to ensure value co-creation.

Q54. Which CI activity asks "Did we get there?"? (A) Verification/Validation (B) Planning (C) Execution (D) Visioning

Answer: A - "Did we get there?" involves checking to ensure that the improvement action has achieved the desired result.

Q55. Which practice recommends "shift-left"? (A) Service desk (B) Change control (C) Release management (D) Problem management

Answer: C - While many practices use it, "Release Management" and dev practices heavily emphasize "shift-left" (testing earlier). However, in ITIL 4, Key Context: Shift-left is often cited in Service Desk (moving support closer to users) or Release. Best ITIL answer: Service Desk / Incident (moving resolution to L1). *Context*: ITIL 4 often associates Shift-Left with Service Desk/Incident Management improvements.

Q56. What is the result of the "Plan" activity in SVC? (A) A new service (B) A shared understanding of the vision and direction (C) A resolved incident (D) A contract

Answer: B - The purpose of the Plan activity is to ensure a shared understanding of the vision, current status, and improvement direction.

Q57. Which guiding principle relates to removing silos? (A) Think and work holistically (B) Start where you are (C) Progress iteratively (D) Keep it simple

Answer: A - "Think and work holistically" explicitly warns that silos can prevent an organization from acting effectively and efficiently.

Q58. A "Change Schedule" is used to: (A) Plan emergency changes (B) Avoid conflicts and communicate planned changes (C) Record incidents (D) Schedule staff shifts

Answer: B - The change schedule is used to help plan changes, assist in communication, avoid conflicts, and assign resources.

Q59. Which is a "Service Request"? (A) "The server is down" (B) "I need a password reset" (C) "The application is slow" (D) "Data is corrupted"

Answer: B - A password reset is a standard request for a service action, not a repair of a failure.

Q60. Which practice analyses data to identify opportunities for improvement? (A) Continual Improvement (B) Service Desk (C) Release Management (D) Supplier Management

Answer: A - Continual improvement aligns services by identifying and acting on opportunities for improvement.

Q61. What is the "Output" of the Deliver and Support activity? (A) Services delivered to agreed specifications (B) New contracts (C) A project plan (D) User requirements

Answer: A - The key output is services delivered to agreed specifications to stakeholders.

Q62. Which practice manages the 'User Experience'? (A) Service Desk (B) Relationship Management (C) Service Level Management (D) All of the above

Answer: D - While Service Level Management focuses on 'Experience' (XLAs), Service Desk and Relationship Management are critical touchpoints. However, SLM is formally tasked with capturing "Customer Experience" metrics under ITIL 4. Best specific answer: Service Level Management (which moved from SLAs to business-based metrics).

Q63. Which term best describes "Standard Change"? (A) High risk, high cost (B) Low risk, pre-authorized (C) Unknown risk, needs assessment (D) Critical, needs board approval

Answer: B - Standard changes are low risk, pre-authorized, and follow a procedure.

Q64. What is the "Service Offering"? (A) A description of one or more services designed to address the needs of a target consumer group (B) A price list (C) A marketing flyer (D) A completed project

Answer: A - A service offering is a formal description of one or more services, which may include goods, access to resources, and service actions.

Q65. Which dimension concerns "Workflow Management Systems"? (A) Organizations and people (B) Information and technology (C) Partners and suppliers (D) Value streams and processes

Answer: B - While it manages workflows, the *system itself* (the tool) falls under Information and Technology.

Q66. Which practice provides a channel for users to report security threats? (A) Service Desk (B) Information Security Management (C) Problem Management (D) Monitoring

Answer: A - The Service Desk is the single point of contact for users to report all issues, including security threats (which are then routed to InfoSec).

Q67. "Optimization" means: (A) Making something as effective and useful as it needs to be (B) Buying the cheapest tool (C) Removing all humans (D) Ignoring legacy systems

Answer: A - Optimization means to make something as effective and useful as needs to be, within set constraints.

Q68. Which guiding principle could be summarized as "Don't reinvent the wheel"? (A) Start where you are (B) Focus on value (C) Keep it simple (D) Collaborate

Answer: A - "Start where you are" means looking at what you already have and using it if it works.

Q69. Which is a "Problem"? (A) A single user can't login (B) The printer is jammed (C) The underlying cause of recurring network crashes (D) A request for a new laptop

Answer: C - A problem is the underlying cause of one or more incidents.

Q70. Which practice negotiates OLAs (Operational Level Agreements)? (A) Service level management (B) Supplier management (C) Change control (D) Incident management

Answer: A - Service level management ensures that all service level agreements (SLAs) and supporting OLAs are appropriate.

Q71. Which SVC activity ensures that service components are available when needed? (A) Obtain/build (B) Design and transition (C) Deliver and support (D) Engage

Answer: A - "Obtain/build" ensures that service components are available when and where they are needed.

Q72. Who is responsible for value co-creation? (A) The provider only (B) The consumer only (C) The provider and the consumer (D) The supplier

Answer: C - Value is co-created through an active collaboration between the provider and the consumer.

Q73. Which is an appropriate metric for the Service Desk? (A) Number of problems fixed (B) Percentage of calls answered within 30 seconds (C) Server uptime (D) Code quality

Answer: B - Speed of answer, first contact resolution, and user satisfaction are typical Service Desk metrics.

Q74. What is the main benefit of "Collaborate and promote visibility"? (A) It reduces the need for meetings (B) It increases buy-in and reduces hidden agendas (C) It saves money (D) It eliminates the need for reports

Answer: B - Collaboration increases buy-in, relevance, and likelihood of long-term success, while visibility reduces confusion.

Q75. Which practice manages the "Change Authority"? (A) Change control (B) Organizational Change Management (C) Governance (D) Release Management

Answer: A - Change control involves assigning the correct Change Authority to each type of change.

Q76. Which is a characteristic of "Good Governance"? (A) Strict rules with no exceptions (B) Evaluating, Directing, and Monitoring (C) Micromanaging every team (D) Creating maximum bureaucracy

Answer: B - Governance relates to the means by which an organization is Directed and Controlled (Evaluate, Direct, Monitor).

Q77. What distinguishes "Service Management" from general management? (A) It focuses on technology (B) It focuses on value co-creation through services (C) It focuses on manufacturing (D) It focuses on biological systems

Answer: B - Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for customers in the form of services.

Q78. In the 4 Dimensions, "Partners and Suppliers" refers to: (A) Internal teams (B) External relationships and contracts (C) The hardware (D) The culture

Answer: B - It encompasses the organization's relationship with other organizations that are involved in the design, development, deployment, delivery, support, and/or continual improvement of services.

Q79. Which activity is part of "Problem Identification"? (A) Fixing the issue (B) Trend analysis of incidents (C) Closing the ticket (D) Updating the SLA

Answer: B - Trend analysis of log records and historical incidents is a key way to identify problems.

Q80. Which guiding principle is best applied when you are stuck in a complex problem? (A) Start where you are (B) Keep it simple and practical (C) Focus on value (D) Progress iteratively with feedback

Answer: B - If a process or problem is too complex, "Keep it simple" advises stripping it back to the basics and minimum viable steps.

Q81. Which concept describes the functionality of a service? (A) Warranty (B) Utility (C) Cost (D) Value

Answer: B - Utility is the functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need (what it does).

Q82. Which practice includes the management of workarounds and known errors? (A) Incident management (B) Problem management (C) Change control (D) Service request management

Answer: B - Problem management manages known errors and workarounds to reduce the impact of incidents.

Q83. What is the purpose of the "Engage" value chain activity? (A) To ensure a shared understanding of stakeholder needs (B) To build the service (C) To deliver the service (D) To plan the strategy

Answer: A - "Engage" provides a good understanding of stakeholder needs, transparency, and continual engagement and good relationships with all stakeholders.

Q84. Which guiding principle emphasizes that exclude waste is key? (A) Focus on value (B) Keep it simple and practical (C) Start where you are (D) Optimize and automate

Answer: B - "Keep it simple and practical" emphasizes eliminating anything that does not provide value or produces no useful outcome (waste).

Q85. Which practice generally manages "major incidents"? (A) Incident management (B) Problem management (C) Change control (D) Relationship management

Answer: A - Major incidents are the highest priority incidents and are managed via a specific procedure within Incident Management (often with a specialized team).

Q86. What is the difference between "Incident" and "Problem"? (A) Incident is the cause; Problem is the effect (B) Incident is an interruption; Problem is the cause (C) There is no difference (D) Problem is a small incident

Answer: B - An incident is an unplanned interruption to a service; a problem is a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents.

Q87. Which dimension includes the roles and responsibilities of the service provider's employees? (A) Partners and suppliers (B) Organizations and people (C) Information and technology (D) Value streams and processes

Answer: B - "Organizations and people" includes the roles, responsibilities, systems of authority, and communication styles.

Q88. Which practice ensures that services deliver agreed levels of availability? (A) Availability management (B) Service level management (C) Capacity management (D) Incident management

Answer: A - Availability management ensures that services deliver agreed levels of availability to meet the needs of customers and users.

Q89. Who authorizes an "Emergency Change"? (A) The full CAB (B) The Emergency Change Authority (ECAB) (C) The Service Desk (D) The user

Answer: B - An Emergency Change Authority (often called ECAB) is a smaller group with authority to make rapid decisions for emergency changes.

Q90. Which is an input to the "Improve" activity in the SVC? (A) Performance information from all other activities (B) A new contract (C) A resolved incident (D) A completed change

Answer: A - The "Improve" activity takes performance information from all other activities as input to drive improvements.

Q91. Which practice is responsible for logging and managing feedback, compliments, and complaints? (A) Service desk (B) Relationship management (C) Problem management (D) Supplier management

Answer: B - While Service Desk logs them, Relationship Management ensures they are handled to nurture the relationship. *Correction*: In ITIL 4, Service Request Management handles compliments/complaints effectively, but Relationship Management handles the *strategic* aspect. Best ITIL 4 answer for "logging and managing": Service Request Management (often via Service Desk) or Relationship Management. "Feedback and Complaints" are specifically called out in *Relationship Management*.

Q92. What should you do first when applying "Focus on value"? (A) Buy a tool (B) Know who the consumer is (C) Write a report (D) Hire a consultant

Answer: B - The first step is to know who is being served (the consumer) and what they value.

Q93. Which practice ensures that the organization's suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately? (A) Supplier management (B) Relationship management (C) Service level management (D) Change control

Answer: A - Supplier management ensures that the organization’s suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately to support the seamless provision of quality products and services.

Q94. What is a "Service Provisioning"? (A) Activities performed by a service provider to manage and deliver services (B) Activities performed by a consumer (C) Joint activities (D) Buying hardware

Answer: A - Service provisioning consists of activities performed by a service provider to manage and deliver services (e.g., management of resources, fulfillment).

Q95. Which guiding principle recommends using the minimum number of steps to accomplish an objective? (A) Keep it simple and practical (B) Focus on value (C) Start where you are (D) Optimize and automate

Answer: A - "Keep it simple and practical" advocates for process reduction and simplicity.

Q96. Which value chain activity transforms requirements into service specifications? (A) Design and transition (B) Obtain/build (C) Plan (D) Engage

Answer: A - Design and transition transforms defined requirements into specifications for products and services.

Q97. Which practice would you use to analyze the root cause of a server crash? (A) Problem management (B) Incident management (C) Change control (D) Service configuration management

Answer: A - Problem management investigates the root cause of incidents.

Q98. Which dimension includes knowledge bases? (A) Information and technology (B) Organizations and people (C) Value streams and processes (D) Partners and suppliers

Answer: A - Information and technology includes the information and knowledge necessary for the management of services.

Q99. What is the "Service Value System" (SVS) designed to produce? (A) Value (B) Revenue (C) Products (D) Plans

Answer: A - The SVS represents how the various components and activities of the organization work together to facilitate value creation.

Q100. Which practice manages the "Service Portfolio"? (A) Portfolio management (B) Service catalog management (C) Relationship management (D) Financial management

Answer: A - Portfolio management ensures that the organization has the right mix of programs, projects, products, and services.

Q101. Which guiding principle advises "Understanding the whole, not just the parts"? (A) Think and work holistically (B) Focus on value (C) Collaborate (D) Optimize

Answer: A - "Think and work holistically" means understanding how all parts of the organization work together.

Q102. What is "Service Consumption"? (A) Activities performed by a service consumer to use a service (B) Activities performed by the provider (C) Selling a service (D) Deleting data

Answer: A - Service consumption includes the management of the consumer's resources needed to use the service, and the use actions themselves.

Q103. Which is an example of an "Internal" customer? (A) The HR department of the same company (B) A client company (C) A retail shopper (D) A government agency

Answer: A - An internal customer works for the same organization as the service provider (e.g., HR using IT services).

Q104. Which practice ensures new services are built to specification? (A) Service design (B) Change control (C) Incident management (D) Service desk

Answer: A - Service design (which feeds Design & Transition) ensures products and services are designed to meet requirements.

Q105. "Start where you are" means: (A) Do not start from scratch unless necessary (B) Always buy new tools (C) Assume everything is broken (D) Survey the market first

Answer: A - It means assessing the current state and reusing existing services, processes, and data where possible.

Q106. Which practice involves "Category" and "Priority"? (A) Incident management (B) Strategy management (C) Architecture management (D) Risk management

Answer: A - Incidents are typically logged with a category (what it is) and priority (urgency/impact).

Q107. Which relationship type involves "Supply and Demand"? (A) Service Relationship (B) Personal Relationship (C) Conflict (D) Partnership

Answer: A - Service relationships are about the supply of services (provider) and the demand for services (consumer).

Q108. Which practice manages the "CI" (Configuration Item)? (A) Service configuration management (B) Asset management (C) Deployment management (D) Change control

Answer: A - Service configuration management manages CIs and their relationships.

Q109. What is "Governance"? (A) The means by which an organization is directed and controlled (B) The management of day-to-day operations (C) The IT department (D) The government

Answer: A - Governance is the system by which an organization is directed and controlled.

Q110. Which is a "Warranty" metric? (A) Availability: 99.9% (B) Has a search function (C) Allows user to login (D) Generates a report

Answer: A - Warranty is about "how" the service performs (availability, capacity, etc.), while B, C, and D are Utility (functionality).

Q111. Which practice handles "Access Requests"? (A) Service request management (B) Access management (C) Information security management (D) Incident management

Answer: A - While "Identity and Access Management" is a practice, routine requests for access (e.g., "Grant me access to Folder X") are handled as Service Requests by Service Request Management. (Note: ITIL 4 combines Identity/Access into specific practices, but Request Management handles the *user request* workflow). *Best Match*: Service Request Management handles the user interaction side.

Q112. Which guiding principle encourages you to "Check your work"? (A) Progress iteratively with feedback (B) Think holistically (C) Keep it simple (D) Optimize

Answer: A - "With feedback" implies checking the results of your iteration (checking your work) before moving to the next step.

Q113. What is the "Service Value Chain"? (A) An operating model for service creation (B) A list of services (C) A database of assets (D) A set of guiding principles

Answer: A - The SVC is an operating model which outlines the key activities required to respond to demand and facilitate value realization.

Q114. Which dimension considers "Culture"? (A) Organizations and people (B) Partners and suppliers (C) Information and technology (D) Value streams and processes

Answer: A - Culture is a critical part of the "Organizations and people" dimension.

Q115. Which practice ensures that services are "Available"? (A) Availability management (B) Capacity management (C) Continuity management (D) Service desk

Answer: A - Availability management ensures that services deliver agreed levels of availability.

Q116. What is "IT Asset"? (A) Any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service (B) Only hardware (C) Only software (D) An employee

Answer: A - An IT asset is any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service.

Q117. Which practice performs "Disaster Recovery"? (A) Service continuity management (B) Incident management (C) Problem management (D) Change control

Answer: A - Service continuity management ensures that the availability and performance of a service can be maintained at a sufficient level in case of a disaster.

Q118. Which guiding principle leverages "Feedback"? (A) Progress iteratively with feedback (B) Focus on value (C) Start where you are (D) Keep it simple

Answer: A - "Progress iteratively with feedback" resists the temptation to do everything at once and uses feedback to ensure the right direction.

Q119. Which SVC activity delivers services? (A) Deliver and support (B) Obtain/build (C) Design and transition (D) Engage

Answer: A - "Deliver and support" ensures that services are delivered and supported according to agreed specifications.

Q120. Which term refers to "A person or group who authorizes a change"? (A) Change Authority (B) Change Manager (C) Change Advisory Board (D) Service Owner

Answer: A - The Change Authority is the person or group responsible for authorizing a change.

Q121. What is the key to strict "Warranty" delivery? (A) Good marketing (B) Meeting agreed availability, capacity, and security requirements (C) Having many features (D) Low cost

Answer: B - Warranty is "Fit for Use", which specifically refers to availability, capacity, continuity, and security assurance.

Q122. Which practice manages the "Service Catalog"? (A) Service catalog management (B) Portfolio management (C) Service level management (D) Request management

Answer: A - Service catalog management ensures that a single source of consistent information on all services is available to those who are authorized to access it.

Q123. Which guiding principle discusses "Silos"? (A) Think and work holistically (B) Start where you are (C) Focus on value (D) Keep it simple

Answer: A - "Think and work holistically" specifically aims to break down silos to ensure end-to-end value delivery.

Q124. What is a "Service Level"? (A) One or more metrics that define expected or achieved service quality (B) A contract (C) A type of server (D) A user ranking

Answer: A - A service level is one or more metrics that define expected or achieved service quality (e.g., Bronze, Silver, Gold levels of performance).

Q125. Which practice minimizes the impact of incidents by getting to the root cause? (A) Problem management (B) Incident management (C) Service request management (D) Change control

Answer: A - Problem management minimizes the impact of incidents by identifying and fixing the underlying causes (root causes) so they don't recur.

Q126. "Automate" is part of which guiding principle? (A) Keep it simple and practical (B) Optimize and automate (C) Focus on value (D) Start where you are

Answer: B - "Optimize and automate" suggests maximizing value by automating anything that can be automated (after optimizing it).

Q127. Which practice uses "SWOT analysis"? (A) Strategy management (B) Incident management (C) Service desk (D) Deployment management

Answer: A - Strategy management (and often Continual Improvement) uses SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) to analyze the organization's position.

Q128. Who owns the "Outcome" of a service? (A) The Consumer (B) The Provider (C) The Supplier (D) The Service Desk

Answer: A - The Consumer achieves the outcome (result), enabled by the Provider's service output.

Q129. Which practice ensures people have the right skills and competence? (A) Workforce and talent management (B) Supplier management (C) Change control (D) Service design

Answer: A - While "Organizations and People" is a dimension, the *practice* is Workforce and Talent Management.

Q130. What is "Service Continuity Management"? (A) Backups and disaster recovery planning (B) Managing continuous delivery (C) Keeping the service desk open 24/7 (D) Preventing all incidents

Answer: A - It focuses on ensuring that the organization can continue to deliver products and services at acceptable levels following a disruptive incident (Disaster Recovery).

Q131. Which is an example of "Utility"? (A) The app has a search feature (B) The app is available 99% of the time (C) The app is secure (D) The app is fast

Answer: A - Utility is what the service does (functionality). Availability (B), Security (C), and Speed (Capacity/Performance - D) are Warranty.

Q132. What drives the "Service Value System"? (A) Opportunity / Demand (B) Money (C) Management (D) Technology

Answer: A - The SVS is triggered by Opportunity and Demand.

Q133. Which practice manages "Major Incident Reviews"? (A) Incident management (B) Problem management (C) Service level management (D) Change control

Answer: A - Post-incident reviews (especially for major incidents) are part of the Incident Management practice to learn for the future.

Q134. Which relationship is "One-to-many"? (A) Service Desk to Users (B) Problem to Incidents (C) Change to Incidents (D) None

Answer: B - One "Problem" (root cause) can cause many "Incidents".

Q135. Which activity involves "Buy vs Build" decisions? (A) Obtain/build (B) Plan (C) Engage (D) Deliver and support

Answer: A - "Obtain/build" involves the decision and execution of acquiring components (buying) or developing them (building).

Q136. Which Guiding Principle helps when you lack data? (A) Progress iteratively with feedback (B) Optimize and automate (C) Focus on value (D) Think holistically

Answer: A - Iteration allows you to take a small step, gather data (feedback), and then adjust, rather than waiting for perfect data to start.

Q137. Which practice manages the "Cost" of services? (A) Service financial management (B) Service level management (C) Supplier management (D) Capacity management

Answer: A - Service financial management supports the organization's strategies and plans for service management by ensuring that the organization's financial resources and investments are being used effectively.

Q138. What is the "Change Authority" for a standard change? (A) None / Pre-authorized (B) The CAB (C) The CEO (D) The Customer

Answer: A - Standard changes are pre-authorized (the authority is granted in advance via the procedure creation).

Q139. Which dimension tackles "Cloud Computing" contracts? (A) Partners and suppliers (B) Information and technology (C) Organizations and people (D) Value streams and processes

Answer: A - While cloud is technology, the *contract* and relationship with the Cloud Provider fall under Partners and Suppliers.

Q140. Which practice ensures "Capacity and Performance"? (A) Capacity and performance management (B) Availability management (C) Service level management (D) Monitoring

Answer: A - Capacity and performance management ensures that services achieve agreed and expected performance and capacity targets.

Q141. "Fit for Purpose" refers to: (A) Utility (B) Warranty (C) Value (D) Cost

Answer: A - Utility is often summarized as "Fit for Purpose".

Q142. Which is a "Configuration Item" (CI)? (A) A server (B) A software application (C) A document (D) All of the above

Answer: D - Anything that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service can be a CI.

Q143. Which practice involves "Trend Analysis"? (A) Problem management (B) Incident management (C) Change control (D) Deployment management

Answer: A - Trend analysis is key to identifying problems (recurring incidents).

Q144. Which guiding principle says "If a process, service, action or metric provides no value, eliminate it"? (A) Keep it simple and practical (B) Focus on value (C) Optimize and automate (D) Start where you are

Answer: A - "Keep it simple and practical" is the principle that explicitly tells you to eliminate waste.

Q145. Which practice owns the "Incident" record? (A) Service desk (B) Problem management (C) Change control (D) The user

Answer: A - The Service Desk usually owns the incident record and the communication with the user throughout its lifecycle.

Q146. "Agile" and "DevOps" utilize which Guiding Principle heavily? (A) Progress iteratively with feedback (B) Think holistically (C) Keep it simple (D) Focus on value

Answer: A - Agile/DevOps are built on iterative cycles (sprints/loops) with constant feedback.

Q147. Which practice ensures releases are successful? (A) Release management (B) Deployment management (C) Change control (D) Service validation

Answer: A - Release management is responsible for making new and changed services and features available for use.

Q148. What is "Deployment"? (A) Moving code/hardware to a live environment (B) Making it available to users (C) Designing it (D) Planning it

Answer: A - Deployment is the movement of a service component into an environment (e.g., Live). Release is making it available/visible to users (flipping the switch).

Q149. Which dimension includes "Communication Systems"? (A) Information and technology (B) Organizations and people (C) Value streams and processes (D) Partners and suppliers

Answer: A - Communication *systems* (email, chat apps, ticketing tools) are part of Information and Technology.

Q150. Which value chain activity includes "Performance Reports"? (A) Improve (B) Plan (C) Engage (D) Design and transition

Answer: A - "Improve" uses performance reports to analyze where improvements can be made.

Q151. Which practice handles "Complaints"? (A) Service request management (B) Incident management (C) Change control (D) Problem management

Answer: A - Complaints can be handled as a type of Service Request (or via Relationship Management), but definitely not Incident, Problem, or Change. Best operational answer is Request Management.

Q152. Which guiding principle implies "Don't work in a vacuum"? (A) Collaborate and promote visibility (B) Focus on value (C) Think holistically (D) Start where you are

Answer: A - "Collaborate and promote visibility" combats working in isolation (a vacuum).

Q153. What is the output of "Problem Management"? (A) Known errors and workarounds (B) Resolved incidents (C) New features (D) A project initiation document

Answer: A - The primary outputs are Known Error records and Workarounds.

Q154. Which practice ensures services are "Secure"? (A) Information security management (B) Access management (C) Incident management (D) Change control

Answer: A - Information security management ensures that the organization’s information is protected.

Q155. Which practice negotiates with "External Vendors"? (A) Supplier management (B) Relationship management (C) Service desk (D) Deployment management

Answer: A - Supplier management manages the relationship and contracts with external suppliers.

Q156. What is "Value Co-creation"? (A) Provider and Consumer creating value together (B) Provider creating value alone (C) Consumer creating value alone (D) Paying for value

Answer: A - It is the core concept of ITIL 4: value is co-created by the service provider and the service consumer.

Q157. Which CI activity looks at "Current State"? (A) Audit / Assessment ("Where are we now?") (B) Visioning (C) Planning (D) Execution

Answer: A - "Where are we now?" involves assessing the current state (audits, assessments).

Q158. Which principle advises "Use the right metrics"? (A) Focus on value (B) Start where you are (C) Keep it simple (D) Collaborate

Answer: A - While all apply, "Focus on value" implies measuring what matters (value) rather than vanity metrics. *Correction*: Metrics are often discussed in "Start where you are" (measurement of current state) or "Take action" steps. However, avoiding "Watermelon metrics" is often linked to "Focus on value" (green on the outside/SLA, red on the inside/Value).

Q159. Which practice manages event filtering and correlation? (A) Monitoring and event management (B) Incident management (C) Problem management (D) Service desk

Answer: A - Monitoring and event management filters and correlates events to make sense of them.

Q160. What is a "User"? (A) A person who uses the service (B) A person who authorizes the budget (C) A person who defines the requirements (D) A supplier

Answer: A - A User is the person who uses the service on a day-to-day basis.

Q161. Which practice handles "Password Resets"? (A) Service request management (B) Access management (C) Incident management (D) Change control

Answer: A - A password reset is a standard request from a user, handled by Service Request Management (often executed by the Service Desk).

Q162. Which guiding principle emphasizes that you should not work in isolation? (A) Collaborate and promote visibility (B) Think holistically (C) Focus on value (D) Start where you are

Answer: A - Working in isolation leads to poor decision making; collaboration improves visibility and outcomes.

Q163. Which practice manages "Service Level Targets"? (A) Service level management (B) Incident management (C) Change control (D) Strategy management

Answer: A - Service level management defines, documents, and manages service levels (targets) in SLAs.

Q164. What is a "Standard Change"? (A) A change that needs CAB approval (B) A high-risk change (C) A low-risk, pre-authorized change (D) An emergency change

Answer: C - Standard changes are pre-authorized, low risk, and follow a documented procedure.

Q165. Which practice involves "Swarming"? (A) Incident management (B) Problem management (C) Change control (D) Release management

Answer: A - Swarming is a collaboration technique used in Incident Management to bring multiple experts together to resolve an issue.

Q166. "Value" is best described as: (A) Money saved (B) Perceived benefits, usefulness, and importance (C) Features delivered (D) Time saved

Answer: B - Value is the perceived benefits, usefulness, and importance of something.

Q167. Which dimension includes "Workflow"? (A) Value streams and processes (B) Partners and suppliers (C) Information and technology (D) Organizations and people

Answer: A - Workflows are the sequence of activities, which falls squarely under "Value streams and processes".

Q168. Which practice manages the "Known Error Database" (KEDB)? (A) Problem management (B) Incident management (C) Service desk (D) Knowledge management

Answer: A - The KEDB is created and managed by Problem Management (though Knowledge Management may host the tool).

Q169. Which principal says "Optimize"? (A) Optimize and automate (B) Keep it simple (C) Focus on value (D) Start where you are

Answer: A - "Optimize and automate" advises to make something as effective as possible before automating it.

Q170. Which practice ensures "Availability"? (A) Availability management (B) Capacity management (C) Incident management (D) Change control

Answer: A - Availability management ensures the service is available when needed.

Q171. What is an "Outcome"? (A) A result for a stakeholder (B) A deliverable (C) A task (D) A risk

Answer: A - An outcome is a result for a stakeholder enabled by one or more outputs.

Q172. Which practice manages "Assets"? (A) IT asset management (B) Service configuration management (C) Change control (D) Deployment management

Answer: A - IT Asset Management (ITAM) manages the full lifecycle of IT assets.

Q173. Which Guiding Principle helps avoid "Metric Fixation"? (A) Focus on value (B) Start where you are (C) Keep it simple (D) Optimize

Answer: A - Focusing on value ensures you measure what contributes to value, not just what is easy to measure.

Q174. Which activity involves "Purchasing"? (A) Obtain/build (B) Design and transition (C) Plan (D) Deliver and support

Answer: A - "Obtain/build" includes acquiring components from suppliers (purchasing).

Q175. Which practice owns "User Feedback"? (A) Relationship management (B) Service desk (C) Incident management (D) Problem management

Answer: A - Relationship management is the strategic owner of customer/user relationships and feedback loops.

Q176. Which dimension includes "AI and Automation"? (A) Information and technology (B) Value streams and processes (C) Partners and suppliers (D) Organizations and people

Answer: A - AI and Automation are technologies.

Q177. What is a "Normal Change"? (A) A change that needs assessment and authorization (B) A standard change (C) An emergency change (D) A bug fix

Answer: A - Normal changes are those that need to be assessed, authorized, and scheduled.

Q178. Which practice manages "Risks"? (A) Risk management (B) Problem management (C) Incident management (D) Change control

Answer: A - Risk management identifies, assesses, and controls risks. (Note: It is a General Management Practice).

Q179. Which practice ensures "Business Continuity"? (A) Service continuity management (B) Incident management (C) Availability management (D) Service desk

Answer: A - Service continuity management supports business continuity management (BCM).

Q180. "Keep it simple and practical" implies: (A) Use the fewest steps possible (B) Use the cheapest tools (C) Don't use technology (D) Don't document anything

Answer: A - It means simplifying processes and eliminating waste to reach existing objectives.

Q181. What is "Service Utility"? (A) Functionality (B) Assurance (C) Cost (D) Risk

Answer: A - Utility is the functionality of a service to meet a particular need.

Q182. Which practice handles "Deployment"? (A) Deployment management (B) Release management (C) Change control (D) Service validation

Answer: A - Deployment management moves the hardware/software to the live environment.

Q183. Which relationship involves "Governance"? (A) Governing Body to Organization (B) Service Desk to User (C) Server to Network (D) None

Answer: A - Governance is the relationship between the Governing Body and the Organization (Evaluate, Direct, Monitor).

Q184. Which activity ensures "Stakeholder Understanding"? (A) Engage (B) Plan (C) Improve (D) Design

Answer: A - "Engage" ensures a good understanding of stakeholder needs and transparency.

Q185. What is a "Workaround"? (A) A temporary fix for a problem (B) A permanent fix (C) A new feature (D) A type of server

Answer: A - A workaround reduces or eliminates the impact of an incident/problem for which a full resolution is not yet available.

Q186. Which practice manages "Contracts"? (A) Supplier management (B) Service level management (C) Change control (D) Incident management

Answer: A - Supplier management manages contracts with external suppliers. (SLM manages SLAs, not necessarily the legal procurement contract).

Q187. Which dimension includes "Teams and Roles"? (A) Organizations and people (B) Value streams and processes (C) Information and technology (D) Partners and suppliers

Answer: A - It defines the organizational structure, roles, responsibilities, and culture.

Q188. Which practice maximizes the number of successful changes? (A) Change control (B) Release management (C) Deployment management (D) Service desk

Answer: A - Change control's purpose is to maximize the number of successful service and product changes by ensuring risks are assessed.

Q189. What is the "Service Desk"? (A) The entry point for all user contact (B) A help manual (C) A software tool (D) A server room

Answer: A - The Service Desk is the single point of contact for the service provider with all of its users.

Q190. Which guiding principle advises "Don't be afraid to ask"? (A) Collaborate and promote visibility (B) Start where you are (C) Keep it simple (D) Optimize

Answer: A - Collaboration requires communication and visibility, which includes asking questions and sharing information.

Q191. Which practice typically uses a "Virtual Agent" or Chatbot? (A) Service desk (B) Change control (C) Problem management (D) Strategy management

Answer: A - Service Desks increasingly use virtual agents/chatbots to handle L1 contacts.

Q192. What is "Output"? (A) A deliverable (B) A result (C) A risk (D) A cost

Answer: A - An output is a deliverable from an activity.

Q193. Which practice manages "Major Incidents"? (A) Incident management (B) Release management (C) Change control (D) Service design

Answer: A - Incident management includes the process for handling major incidents.

Q194. Which dimension includes "Supply Chains"? (A) Partners and suppliers (B) Value streams and processes (C) Information and technology (D) Organizations and people

Answer: A - It includes the supply chain and relationships with partners/suppliers.

Q195. Which practice ensures "Security Controls"? (A) Information security management (B) Access management (C) Incident management (D) Monitoring

Answer: A - Information security management establishes controls to protect information.

Q196. What is a "Sponsor"? (A) The person who pays (B) The user (C) The provider (D) The supplier

Answer: A - The sponsor authorizes the budget for the service consumption.

Q197. Which activity focuses on "Vision"? (A) Plan (B) Improve (C) Engage (D) Design

Answer: A - The "Plan" activity ensures a shared understanding of the vision.

Q198. Which guiding principle relates to "Minimum Viable Product"? (A) Progress iteratively with feedback (B) Think holistically (C) Collaborate (D) Optimize

Answer: A - MVPs are a core concept of iterative progression (release something small, get feedback, iterate).

Q199. Which practice manages "CIs"? (A) Service configuration management (B) Asset management (C) Change control (D) Deployment

Answer: A - Configuration management manages Configuration Items (CIs).

Q200. What is "Continual Improvement"? (A) Aligning services with changing business needs (B) A one-off fix (C) A department (D) A monthly report

Answer: A - It aligns the organization's practices and services with changing business needs through ongoing improvement.

ITIL 4 Foundation
Hybrid Master Guide: Concepts + 200 Qs

🎯 Certification Goal

Service vs. Product

Utility vs. Warranty

The 7 Guiding Principles

The 4 Dimensions (VOIP)

SVS vs. SVC